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#1 |
Junior member
Join Date: May 16, 2008
Posts: 9,994
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Interesting take on "straw buy" or buy for resale
I ran into a good deal on an AR. A factory upper from a manufacturer I like and a built polymer lower. I'm not sure if 80% or just installed LPK. I think this brand has both and possibly complete lowers also. I am not sure the seller knows or is the original owner. I'm not sure and don't really care. The upper has the value exceeding the purchase price for me. I'm approaching it from a "if the lower is crap and I end up selling it for $50, it will still be a great deal" perspective because I am interested in trying out the cheap polymer lower before I judge it and decide whether or not to send it to a new home. I can see many people making a similar purchase with definite intent to resell the lower. Of course, the lower is the serialized part and so the "firearm." So that would be an illegal purchase, or at least in a grey area(don't wan to get too directly into the ambiguity of the 'engaged in the business' portion of the law here as there is another active thread on that subject).
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#2 |
Staff
Join Date: March 11, 2006
Location: Upper US
Posts: 30,487
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For starters, unless you bragged on the internet or directly to a Federal agent, how would anyone know you bought it with the intent of selling it later??
And, its the later part that is the key, generally. Along with what is considered reasonable...."I'm gonna buy this, try it, and if I don't like it, sell it" is generally NOT even remotely considered "engaged in the business". Generally. Despite current efforts to have the Executive branch redefine the law, what CONGRESS has put into law is fairly clear to most of us, and a single instance of buying and selling isn't even close to meeting that definition. Under current usage, its not a "straw buy" unless you are buying the gun for someone who legally cannot, or you are buying it with someone else's money. (as I understand it. Legal eagles, please correct me if I'm wrong) I have heard of "stings" where someone buys a gun at a show, and while walking around with it, is approached by someone (undercover) and offered more than they paid (maybe a couple hundred bucks more) and then arrested when they sold the gun, for "dealing without a license". I have not heard of any of these cases resulting in convictions, but I suppose it could happen. The main points that need to be proven are what your intent was before purchase, and if you are doing it on a regular enough basis that indicates you are deliberately doing it for the income generated. A friend of mine bought one of the mini GLocks in .45 on Friday. Took it to the range on Saturday. Hated it, and "sold" it back to the dealer on Monday. Not even remotely a violation of law, that any of us could see. Now, if you buy six identical pistols, then sell them because you "don't like them", then turn around and buy six more of the same thing the next week or month, that sends a much different signal. In the situation you described, I don't see anything to worry about, unless you are buying, then selling multiple copies of the rifle. That would be fairly clear intent you are doing it to make a profit, which is different from making a profit as a result of doing it. Not a lawyer, my advice is worth what you paid for it, no more, and possibly less. ![]()
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#3 |
Senior Member
Join Date: October 11, 2012
Location: Braham, Minnesota
Posts: 1,314
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What are the rules if it is in fact a 80% lower? Can you even sell those.
They are not Sn'ed so I was wondering. |
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#4 | |
Staff
Join Date: November 23, 2005
Location: California - San Francisco
Posts: 9,475
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Buying with an intent to resell is not what makes a straw purchase.
Let me again lay out my explanation of what a straw purchase is. This reflects current law consistent with Abramski. The actual offense, under the Gun Control Act of 1968, is violation of 18 USC 922(a)(6), making a false statement on the 4473 (specifically about who is the actual buyer), and has nothing to do with the ultimate recipient being a prohibited person. See the ATF publication Federal Firearms Regulation Reference Guide, 2005, at page 165 (emphasis added): So, if --
Some more examples --
Whether or not a transaction is an unlawful straw purpose will often be a question of intent. But prosecutors in various situations can convince juries of intent, often from circumstantial evidence. A slip of the tongue, posting something on the Internet, tracks left by money transfers have all, in one way or another, and in various contexts, helped convince a jury of intent. It would also be unlawful to buy a gun privately (without a 4473) for the purpose of transferring the gun to a prohibited person.
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"It is long been a principle of ours that one is no more armed because he has possession of a firearm than he is a musician because he owns a piano. There is no point in having a gun if you are not capable of using it skillfully." -- Jeff Cooper |
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#5 | ||
Junior member
Join Date: May 16, 2008
Posts: 9,994
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Quote:
In practice very few FFLs will touch them, so you may be limited to local FTF sales. State laws vary. Quote:
In my case I do not own any lower receivers. The gun fund is a little low at the moment, so I won't be building one in the near future. I will need the one that comes with the upper for at least a short period of time even if it is junk. If it isn't junk I will probably hold onto it as this isn't intended to be an expensive project. So, I am not really on the illegal side of it whether "straw purchase" is the correct term or not. I was under the impression marking "Yes" to being the actual buyer when intending to turn the item was a straw buy. I can see where it isn't. I knew a guy who bought a rifle for the old scope on it. I am sure this happens often. Sure it is very hard to prove, but it happens and I never thought about it before. Last edited by johnwilliamson062; November 28, 2015 at 03:46 AM. |
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#6 |
Senior Member
Join Date: February 1, 2011
Posts: 356
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An 80% lower can be sold if it is first serialized according to federal law. What that process is I have no clue. I would guess that it requires registering the number with the ATF, and further requires that the number be "permanently affixed" to the firearm, usually by engraving or stamping. I have a vague recollection--but this may just be an oddity or proposed oddity of California law, that the serial number for a polymer lower had to be embedded in some unknown fashion into the polymer.
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#7 | |
Junior member
Join Date: May 16, 2008
Posts: 9,994
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Quote:
Last edited by johnwilliamson062; November 28, 2015 at 03:55 AM. |
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#8 | |
Staff
Join Date: March 11, 2006
Location: Upper US
Posts: 30,487
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Quote:
Home made firearms are not the same thing as guns made before the serial # requirement became law (68, IIRC). Those guns, are grandfathered, specifically exempted in law. NEW made (post 68) homemade guns are in a different classification. I THINK you are supposed to put a serial number (more than 3 characters) on the gun when you make it. But I don't think you are required to, until you sell it. At that point, its no longer your personal property, and is now in commercial commerce, and the law requires the number then. I KNOW you are not required to put a serial number on an old gun that never had one. I have had such guns, and even taken some to gunsmiths for repair work. They put "no ser#" in the ser# block on all the paperwork, and its totally legal and correct.
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All else being equal (and it almost never is) bigger bullets tend to work better. |
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#9 | |
Junior member
Join Date: May 16, 2008
Posts: 9,994
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ATFE decision homemade firearms DO need to be serialized before transfer:
http://www.victorinc.com/images/ATF'...-%20Pg%201.jpg http://www.victorinc.com/images/ATF'...-%20Pg%202.jpg I pulled those links from a thread on calguns: http://www.calguns.net/calgunforum/a.../t-501174.html As noted in that thread, the law reads: Quote:
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#10 |
Junior member
Join Date: May 16, 2008
Posts: 9,994
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For context:)
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