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Originally Posted by kraigwy
Ok so lets say one (in a state where its legal) goes out to his garage machine shot. Builds for his own use, a shotgun, which he builds and uses for his own use, no intention of selling or giving away,
How is that inter or intrastate commerce.
If that is considered commerce, then why does the government need to include the above listed clause?
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You know that shotgun he would have purchased from interstate commerce if he hadn't built one? That shotgun was in interstate commerce, and since he
didn't buy it, he has had an effect on interstate commerce.
If that sounds tortured to you, you understood it perfectly.