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If I understand correctly, the so called "martial arts" were developed primarily by people who were prohibited from owning or carrying guns and in some cases knives or even impact weapons. If one can carry a gun, and can use it, why would he choose any of the "weaponless" systems?
It has been argued that since the "martial arts" don't involve weapons, killing an opponent will be considered by the authorities as sort of "benign" and will not involve the arrest of the killer. Nope. Anyone who believes that needs to talk to a lawyer.
Jim
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