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Originally Posted by zukiphile
It's been more than a half century since private hotel owners have been permitted to enforce screening criteria that impose on the fundamental right to travel. Can the obligation of a state not to impose on an explicit and fundamental right be less?
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The use of the word, "obligation", is rather strange, since we are talking about the powers of a government. In that context, yes. The Bill of Rights are prohibitions to the power(s) of government. They are not necessarily prohibitions on the private sector.
Or am I failing to understand your question?