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...the police basically said "hey if he was going to advance against someone willing to use deadly force he must have intended severe harm".....
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I don't interpret it that way at all. Intent would only provide one part of a successful justification. It would not be sufficient. Remember A, O, J, P.
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Basically the use of deadly force (more correctly the continued attack after the use of deadly force) is being used as evidence that deadly force was justified.
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Where do you get that idea?
The video shows pretty clearly that an unarmed man was trying to grab a man who had a gun. The
only serious risk was that of the attacker acquiring the gun.
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While I get that the point might be accurate it is not something that we should be willing to use to color our discussions on the matter because of its circular nature.
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I see nothing circular about it.