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Old March 14, 2014, 09:36 AM   #3
Brian Pfleuger
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Join Date: June 25, 2008
Location: Austin, CO
Posts: 19,578
Yep, and ever since Wickard v. Filburn (at least), it has been held that doing something specifically NOT for interstate commerce actually effects interstate commerce by virtue of NOT being interstate commerce when it COULD HAVE BEEN because if the NOT interstate commerce hadn't been done then the person would have engaged in actual interstate commerce. (more or less)

Yeah... there's a legal term for that.... "stupid".
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