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Originally Posted by Uncle Billy
If the writers had meant the 2nd amendment to enable the states to maintain armed forces (arguably the evolved definition of "militia"),
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No evolution at all. That is exactly what the militia was and part of the reason that the 2A was written. That was, to insure that the States could
continue to have a bit of control and authority over the militia rather than cede it all to the Fed. However, that issue is irrelavent today.
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Originally Posted by Uncle Billy
If the writers had meant the 2nd amendment to enable the states to maintain armed forces (arguably the evolved definition of "militia"), they'd have said "the right of the individual states to maintain armed forces" shall not be infringed.
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They had already taken care of that in the Article I, Section 8, clauses 15 and 16. The problem was the states feared the control the Fed had over the state militia (there was never a federal militia). That is why the reference is made to the militia.
If the writers had meant the 2A to only apply to individual firearm ownership by citizens they would have said simply "The right of the individual citizen to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed" However as you say;
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Originally Posted by Uncle Billy
They well knew the specific definition of the words they used and they didn't misspeak.
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