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Old October 10, 2013, 01:48 PM   #24
Frank Ettin
Join Date: November 23, 2005
Location: California - San Francisco
Posts: 8,749
Originally Posted by JimDandy
Originally Posted by Frank Ettin
Now cite a case in which a court found that a State's exercise of its police powers to regulate possession of something within its borders constituted a regulation of commerce.
That would be Brown v. Maryland - 25 U.S. 419 (1827) where the State of Maryland used it's police power to require a license for the importation and wholesale of " foreign goods by the bale or package, &c."....
Nope. That is a clear and direct attempt to regulate commerce (i. e., commercial activity). It has nothing to do with the possession by an individual of personal property for his own use.
"It is long been a principle of ours that one is no more armed because he has possession of a firearm than he is a musician because he owns a piano. There is no point in having a gun if you are not capable of using it skillfully." -- Jeff Cooper
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