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Old August 13, 2012, 09:05 PM   #34
Frank Ettin
Join Date: November 23, 2005
Location: California - San Francisco
Posts: 8,701
Originally Posted by hogdogs
Only due to my use of lay person terminology... otherwise your official wording in quote is what I was trying to say... PC has to be sufficient to cause a question of legal use of force (justified)... so lacking the obvious PC... i am correct in my statement...
Except in this world dealing with these sorts of issue accurate terminology and a clear understanding of the concepts matter a great deal.

Originally Posted by hogdogs
...Dead unarmed man half in half out of my window with a brain shot oozing gore on my carpet... ??? No PC there... he tried to break in and died trying...

Dead man in front yard of elderly woman and shot in the back by male neighbor who heard the threats and came to her rescue... Proven legal use of force even though shooter was 100% safe in his own home... NO PC THERE!!!...
Maybe yes, and maybe no. The devil is in the details, and in each case there might or might not be more to the story that might or might not make a difference. Jumping to conclusions is a bad idea.

But we've gone too far afield already. Let's end this hijack and get back to the subject of this thread.
"It is long been a principle of ours that one is no more armed because he has possession of a firearm than he is a musician because he owns a piano. There is no point in having a gun if you are not capable of using it skillfully." -- Jeff Cooper
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