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April 17, 2012, 05:59 PM | #1 |
Senior Member
Join Date: February 16, 2006
Location: Baton Rouge, LA
Posts: 301
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Statistic and gun sales
Heard someone talking today about waiting periods and they said there was a federal study that showed a correlation between the day a gun was purchased and that gun being used to shoot someone in a crime or self defense. I thought this sounded odd because I work with stats and I am not sure how they would measure that. Especially when the vast majority of crimes involving a firearm involve an illegal gun either stolen or pitched outside of a legal means. Anyone know if there is any validity to this claim?
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April 17, 2012, 07:17 PM | #2 |
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Join Date: September 27, 2008
Location: Foothills of the Appalachians
Posts: 13,059
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There is no validity to the claim. Things were made up during the early 1990's to justify "cooling-off" (or waiting) periods, but I don't recall seeing a shred of evidence to back that up.
The DOJ does maintain statistics on what's called "time-to-crime," but those are measured in years, not days.
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April 17, 2012, 07:32 PM | #3 |
Senior Member
Join Date: February 16, 2006
Location: Baton Rouge, LA
Posts: 301
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I somewhat figured it was a misunderstood stat that was made up or misinterpreted. Again I could not figure how they could measure it as it was stated.
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