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Originally Posted by JN01
How so? If a retail sales outlet and a church are both privately owned, and the law allows property owners to prohibit/allow guns on premises, it seems they should both enjoy equal treatment under the law. Discrimination against an individual on the basis of religion is not permitted, is it/should it be different for property owners? And if it is, in fact, discriminatory, does that not speak to the "free exercise" clause? (I realize that no court has said as much, nor, it seems have they said much else about religious rights restrictions lately)
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It's an entirely different legal principle. It might be a violation of Equal Protection but it's not a violation of any "separation of church and state". Even if such a thing existed, it has nothing to do with an establishment or endorsement of a religion. It has to do with RKBA or Equal Protection. The religious aspect is irrelevant.