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So what some of you folks think it means is that the 2nd admendment gives you the right to carry a concealed weapon with no government regulation. Right? Or am I misreading some of the comments here. Maybe the commas are in the wrong place or something.
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No right is absolute. What regulation of individual rights is permissible is not dependant ont he prefatory clause. The first amendment has no such clause but it is certainly not absolute.
The point being made above is that "well regulated" in the second amendment has nothing to do with allowing gun control.
Absent the prefatory clause some gun control would still likely be allowed. I can almost assure you that "well regulated" will not be cited as the reason for allowing it. The arguments and reasons used to regulate the first amendment will probably be used in some fashion to allow regulation of the second.