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raimius · December 15, 2008, 02:03 PM

This was written before the "right of the people" actually applied to individuals...(at least at the federal level).
So, perhaps, the interpretation changes with the Heller ruling. Thoughts?

December 15, 2008, 02:03 PM	#12
raimius Senior Member Join Date: January 27, 2008 Posts: 2,199	This was written before the "right of the people" actually applied to individuals...(at least at the federal level). So, perhaps, the interpretation changes with the Heller ruling. Thoughts?