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Could a restraining order in itself be an element? Without any further charges? Or would it amount to conviction of a charge?
I ask because in divorces, judges passed out restraining orders like candy. Had to be no support justifications other than the spouse (normally female) requested it.
My son cohabited with a woman and when they separated she got a restraining order against him, stated she fealt he was dangerous. He had no contact with her at all and after 12 months it just went away. But there was never a reason to begin with.
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