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DogoDon · January 7, 2011, 09:20 AM

I guess it comes down to who "the people" are, doesn't it? The right of "the people" to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. Would the Framers have considered non-citizens to be included in "the people"?

Personally I'm inclined to think that the 2A is in a different category from the 1st, 4th, and 5th Amendments and thus could be treated differently as regards applicability to non-citizens. But I admit I cannot articulate a particularly rational explanation of why I feel that way.

DD

January 7, 2011, 09:20 AM	#6
DogoDon Senior Member Join Date: January 8, 2010 Location: Charlotte, NC Posts: 368	I guess it comes down to who "the people" are, doesn't it? The right of "the people" to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. Would the Framers have considered non-citizens to be included in "the people"? Personally I'm inclined to think that the 2A is in a different category from the 1st, 4th, and 5th Amendments and thus could be treated differently as regards applicability to non-citizens. But I admit I cannot articulate a particularly rational explanation of why I feel that way. DD Last edited by DogoDon; January 7, 2011 at 09:30 AM.