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Old July 28, 2012, 09:15 AM   #16
jgcoastie
Senior Member
 
Join Date: February 15, 2009
Location: Kodiak, Alaska
Posts: 2,118
Quote:
Originally Posted by BlueTrain
I will go along with what you say. There is, as you say, precedence. The English Bill of Rights (there was such a thing) stated that men were permitted arms suitable to their station, or words to that effect. In other words, all men are not equal.
It was not a "Bill of Rights" as we understand it in America. It was a Declaration of Rights enacted by the English parliament in response to William & Mary becoming sovereigns in 1689 following the rule of King James.

Because the English system of government was not based on a supreme document (i.e. like our Constitution) the "Declaration of Rights" meant nothing more than any other law enacted by the parliament. In essence, what the parliament giveth, they may taketh away...

There's a lot of little-known history that shaped our Second Amendment... Kings and parliaments trying to block the bearing of arms by the other's supporters and such... A lot of that can be found here: http://www.guncite.com/journals/vandhist.html
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"To preserve liberty, it is essential that the whole body of the people always possess arms, and be taught alike, especially when young, how to use them." -Richard Henry Lee, Virginia delegate to the Continental Congress, initiator of the Declaration of Independence, and member of the first Senate, which passed the Bill of Rights.
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