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What he is saying is that the nature of the relationship between the Federal Government and the State Government cannot have been meant to change in the manner the amendment suggests. The majority of the Court rejects the plain meaning of the amendment, as it would apply to all and not just to the former slaves.
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Thanks Al. That's what I thought he said, it was just that the circuitous route he took left me wondering if I had followed it all.
So how is it that a single decision, made more than one hundred years ago, continues to thwart the explicit intent of the 14th amendment? Was the decision ever tested? If so, how did it survive?