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I can't tell if this is the court's ideology speaking, or if they really think they are being prudent. To this layman, it seems like the court's reasoning here is just highbrow means for circumventing common sense in the name of politics.
If you just ask any person on the street with an IQ above room temperature, "Does the entire bill of right apply to all citizens?" The answer would be yes. But the court, in all it's wisdom, says "no." Or, at least, "not necessarily."
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