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Okay that makes sense. I can see an argument pointing out that the individual selling his/her property has the sole discretion to sell their firearm to another individual in the first place, and may make their own judgements based on the situation at hand.
I can see another argument being formulated, that a criminal could masquerade as a law abiding citizen to purchase said firearm from a person in a private sale. A seller doing so would then be aiding a criminal in obtaining firearms (which is of course illegal).
That being said, would that be considered a "loop hole"? Even so, you can't really police a private sale if that is the case, loop hole or no loop hole. The only way you'd be able to police such a things is to require registration of all known firearms and developing a system so you'd know where they'd be at all times. (Which is just out and out insane and impossible).
The criminals would likely ignore such a law to begin with, which makes further regulations moot.
Countering that (my brother tossed this at me) the antis would likely argue stating that if that were the case we should abolish all gun laws because the do nothing and are pointless, simply due to criminals not following them in the first place?
A vicious cycle that never ends it seems.
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