Thread: 28th amendment
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Old June 11, 2010, 06:23 PM   #21
Brian Pfleuger
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Join Date: June 25, 2008
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ScottRiqui
what did "well-regulated" mean in the late 18th century, anyway?
Given the meanings of the word "regulate" at the time, I would suggest that "well-regulated" was intended to mean "in good order". In other words, the men available for the militia would be well-documented, the standards for who is or is not "available" would be clear and concise and the militia itself would have a controlling governmental body to insure it's proper training and function, were it to be called.

Since no one could know the time, place or necessity of having the militia called, the right of the people to keep and bear arms can not be infringed. We must have arms available should the militia be needed.

Also, considering that the two clauses are separated, I think it's clear that the "militia clause" is a single descriptor and not the over-riding singular reasoning for the second clause.
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