Originally Posted by dgludwig
...Specifically, is it "legal" to use, say a son's, money to purchase a firearm for him in the guise that it is a "gift"? I don't think so...
I'm afraid that you are correct. That would be an illegal straw purchase.
Okay, and not to quibble, but after informing my friend of your answer, he posed this question "What if the family member buyer purchased the gun with his own money but was partially
reimbursed by family member receipient for the 'gift'?" In other words, if I were to pay $500.00 for a firearm and gave it to my dad for Fathers Day and he, thinking I was too generous, gave me $250.00 as partial compensation towards the purchase of the gun (so that, in the end, in this scenario I would have paid for half of the purchase price and he the other half) would this still constitute a straw purchase? And would it make a difference if we both knew in advance that he would end up paying for half the total price of the firearm?
Thanks for any opinion as to this question.