Originally Posted by hermannr
Aquila, I think the prohibitons came in with the CGA68. Before that there were no FFL's to write down or check who purchased what,
I think that's probably correct. I don't know how to look up statistics, but if there is any validity to the theory that barring convicted felons from possessing firearms prevents crime, if we could find historical statistics on violent crime we SHOULD see a very perceptible drop starting in 1969. I'll bet it's not there.
Certainly, the draconian gun laws in England and Australia have had precisely the opposite effect. Violent crime is up by orders of magnitude since the populace was disarmed.