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Old July 9, 2012, 11:54 AM   #20
Buzzcook
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Join Date: November 29, 2007
Location: Everett, WA
Posts: 5,616
Frank: there is also Intentional, premeditated and without malice. Probably not a legal distinction, but Kevorkian and abuse excuses would fit that description.


As I said a testable statement.
http://www.tampabay.com/news/publics...cle1128317.ece
Quote:
Reports of justifiable homicides in Florida

2000 32

2001 33

2002 35

2003 32

2004 31

2005 43

2006 33

2007 102

2008 93

2009 105

2010 (through June)44

Source: Florida Department of Law Enforcement
At the same time violent crime in Florida has trended down.
http://www.fdle.state.fl.us/Content/...ent-Crime.aspx



I don't think there's any causation or even correlation between the two sets of statistics. There was a four year spike in murders following the passage of SYG.
The contrast indicates that the increase in justifiable homicides can be attributed to SYG.

So that brings up a couple of new questions.
1. Is the increase in justifiable homicides a reclassification of shootings that would be criminal under old law?
2. Are the increase in justifiable homicides new shootings that would not have happened under the old law?
3. If it's some of each, how many of each?

Unfortunately Florida state doesn't keep very good records when it comes to SYG.
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