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Old July 6, 2012, 04:18 PM   #2479
Aguila Blanca
Senior Member
 
Join Date: September 25, 2008
Location: CONUS
Posts: 6,699
Quote:
Originally Posted by Luger carbine
I'd like to find out if indeed the NRA's accusation is true, that people came up with a scheme to allow guns to get into the hands of cartel members primarily to bolster the idea that guns from U.S gun stores were arming the Mexican cartels - as a prelude to calling for stricter gun control laws.

That is the crux of the issue for me because if that charge is true, an entire agency of the U.S. government was used (or allowed itself to be used) in a conspiracy to lie to and manipulate the American people.
I have no proof other than circumstantial, but that was my belief from the moment the news broke, and it didn't take the NRA to convince me. Look at the evidence:

As jimpeel points out, the administration was trying to claim that the Mexican cartels were arming themselves primarily through illegal purchases at American gun stores, but they didn't have data to support the claim.

The administration continues to claim that the "intent" of F&F was to "track" the guns across the border to cartel kingpins. How many ways does this claim NOT make sense?
  • Drug cartel bigshots don't do their own killing. They have "soldiers" for that. So how were these guns supposed to get to the bigshots? And, if they did, how were the Feds going to prove it?
  • The BATFE did NOT inform either their Mexican counterparts or even our own BATFE agents in Mexico that Operation F&F was in progress. Just exactly how could they track (note, they say "track," not "trace") the guns to the kingpins when the people in position to do whatever tracking might be (or probably isn't) possible don't know there are any guns to be tracked?
  • Many of the firearms used in Mexican crimes that have been recovered and traced (not "tracked") to U.S. origins are actually full-auto assault rifles (real assault rifles, not semi-auto sporting rifles with scary back furniture) that could not have been bought by straw buyers in American gun shops. However, they could be (and were) sold to the Mexican government for use by their military and police. The administration doesn't talk about that.
Occam's Razor tells us that the simplest solution is probably the correct solution. Offer another explanation -- ANY other explanation -- that fits the facts as well as the theory that the administration walked the guns to create statistics supporting their claims about the U.S. arming the cartels. I don't think you can possibly come up with any other theory that comes even close to this for adequately fitting the facts.
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