Texas is one of the states where deadly force can be used to protect property as well, even when no threat of serious bodily injury exists.
Yes; I was trying to explain what constituted a "serious bodily injury" of the type that justified deadly force. I was using the Texas statute defining "serious bodily injury" to help show how courts might interpret that.
I'm not understanding why the Texas law on deadly force in defense of property is relevant to this thread? And incidentally, the part of Texas law that you quoted is Section 9.42 of the Penal Code, not Section 9.41 (which deals with non-deadly force to protect property).