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Old October 19, 2008, 11:13 PM   #5
44 AMP
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Join Date: March 11, 2006
Location: Upper US
Posts: 11,214
So, if I read this right....

SCOTUS vacated the TRO because they say the issuing court doesn't have authority over the issue? And they make no judgement about whether or not the issue is valid, only that the court involved doesn't have the authority to decide it (and issue a TRO)? Is that correct?

I'm not a lawyer, and never claimed to be, so sometimes the finer points, and even the underlying principles of these thing get past me in the legal jargon. SO, am I understanding this right, or have I missed something?

Anyone...? Anyone?....Bueler?.....
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